Gk for CTET exam 2024

Gk for CTET exam 2024

Gk for CTET exam 2024: General Knowledge (GK) is one of the most important sections in the entire competitive exams Bank PO, SSC CGL, RAS, CDS, UPSC, CTET exams, Campus and entrance exam and all state-related examinations, here in this article we are going to discuss about some important gk for Gk for CTET exam 2024.

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Gk questions for CTET exam

Q1. Which state of India has the largest number of cities ?

A. Madhya Pradesh   B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Rajasthan               D. Bihar

Answer : Uttar Pradesh

Q2. Which state of India has the highest concentration of city population ?
A. Maharashtra         B. Keral
C. Punjab                    D. Karnataka

Answer : Maharashtra

Q3. Which state of India has the lowest population density ?
A. Goa                             B. Sikkim
C. Arunachal Pradesh   D. Assam

Answer : Arunachal Pradesh

Q4. Name the smallest union territory of India
A. Puducherry                       B.Lakshadweep
C. Andaman and Nicobar   D. Daman and Diu

Answer : Lakshadweep

Q5. Name the largest bank of India
A. RBI                   B. UBI
C. SBI                   D. ICICI

Answer : SBI

Q6. Who is the Executive Head of the Indian Union ?
A. President         B. Prime Minister
C. Governor          D. Commissioner

Answer : President

Q7. Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha ?
A. President              B. Vice - President
C. Prime Minister     D. Attorney General

Answer : Vice - President

Q8. Who appoints the Attorney General of India ?
A. President              B. Prime Minister
C. Governor               D. Chief Minister

Answer : President

Q9. Who appoints the Chief Minister of a state in India ?
A. Prime Minister        B. Judge of High Court
C. President                 C. Governor of State

Answer : Governor of State

Q10. What is the maximum number of members in the Rajya Sabha ?
A. 251 members          B. 250 members
C. 252 members          D. 253 members

Answer : 250 members

Q11. What is the maximum number of members in the Lok Sabha ?
A. 554 members          B. 540 members
C. 545 members          D. 560 members

Answer : 545 members

Q12. What is the retirement age of a High Court Judge in India ?
A. 60 years                   B. 63 years
C. 65 years                   D. 62 years

Answer : 62 years

Q13. When were the first general elections held in India ?
A. 1947                       B. 1957
C. 1952                       D. 1960

Answer : 1952

Q14. When was the first Lok Sabha constituted in India ?
A. April 17, 1952      B. May 17, 1953
C. April 17, 1951      D. May 17, 1952

Answer : April 17, 1952

Q15. Which country has the lengthiest constitution ?
A. U. S. A.              B. U. K
C. Canada             D. India

Answer : India

Q16. Who launched the Chipko Movement ?
A. Rallan                      B. Ram lal Bahuguna
C. Medha Patkar        D. Sunderlal Bahuguna

Answer : Sunderlal Bahuguna

Q17. On the banks of which river is Ludhiana situated ?
A. Beas         B. Ravi
C. Sutlej        D. Chenab

Answer : Sutlej

Q18. On which river is the Bhakra Nangal Dam built ?
A. Ganga        B. Sutlej
C. Yamuna     D. Indus

Answer : Sutlej

Q19. The Anti-British movement in Kittoor was led by whom ?
A. Ahilyabai Holkar        B. Nana Phadnis
C. Rani Laxmibai            D. Rani Channamma

Answer : Rani Channamma

Q20. The word ‘Socialisation’ means
A. Following social norms relentlessly
B. Revolting against social norms
C. Understanding the social diversity
D. Adjusting in the society

Answer: Adjusting in the society

Q21. Which of the followings is NOT a feature of a child-centered outlook?
A. Each child makes his or her curriculum.
B. Children are inactive participants.
C. Each child is unique in its own way.
D. Each child has a right to education.

Answer: Each child makes his or her curriculum

Q22. Which of the followings theory best describes the ‘Heinz’s Dilemma’?
A. Vygotsky’s theory
B. Piaget’s theory
C. Kohlberg’s theory
D. Binet’s theory

Answer: Kohlberg's theory

Q23. Which of the following implications can’t be derived from Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?
A. Children’s desire to learn
B. Need of verbal teaching
C. Acceptance of individual differences
D. Discovery learning

Answer: Need of verbal teaching

Q24. The environmental factors that shape development include all of the following except
A. quality of education    B. quality of nutrition
C. culture                           D. physique

Answer: Physique

Q25. According to Jean Piaget, children develop abstract logic and reasoning skill during:
A. Sensorimotor stage
B. Preoperational stage
C. Formal operational stage
D. Concrete operational stage

Answer: Formal operational stage

Q26. At the pre-primary stage reading aloud while writing is given importance. This is based on which theory of learning?
A. Trial & Error      B. Conditioning
C. Insight               D. Imitation

Answer: Conditioning

Q27. “Individual learns from his own mistakes” This statement is based on which learning theory?
A. Instrumental conditioning
B. Insight
C. Trial & Error
D. Classical conditioning

Answer: Trial & Error

Q28. Development starts from the
A. stage of infancy            B. pre-natal stage
C. pre-childhood stage     D. post-childhood stage

Answer: pre - natal stage

Q29. Physical traits such as height, eye colour, bone structure and hair are
A. Primary qualities         B. Secondary qualities
C. Not inherited                D. Inherited

Answer: Inherited

Q30. Unless he _______ the books he has taken he cannot get his deposit back.
A. Tears        B. Destroys
C. Returns    D. Buys

Answer: Returns

Q31. As an EVS teacher, the aim behind organising a field trip to zoo should be
A. To satisfy parents over the quality of education
B. To provide fun and pleasure to students
C. To bring a change in the monotony of routine
D. To provide an active learning experience to students

Answer : To provide an active learning experience to students.

Q32.A good EVS assignment should primarily focus to:
A. Provide extensive learning opportunities
B. Revise lesson for effective learning
C. Ensure better utilization of time
D. Keep students engaged and disciplined

Answer: Provide extensive learning opportunities

Q33. Select the most nearly opposite to “RESTITUTION”
A. Inflation             B. Restoration
C. Cataclysm         D. Deprivation

Answer: Deprivation

Q34. When is the Global Hand washing Day observed every year ?
A. August 12      B.September 6
C. October 15    D. November 20

Answer : October 15

Q35. What is the most relevant characteristic of the normally developing adolescent?
A. Continuous need for parental support
B. Freedom from peer group identification
C. Desire for domination by siblings
D. Development of emotional maturity

Answer: Development of emotional maturity

Note : More questions will be uploaded shortly.. . .

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